Chapter 7 – Foot and Ankle Structured SBA




Abstract




Foot and Ankle Structured SBA Questions





Chapter 7 Foot and Ankle Structured SBA


Gavin Heyes and Lyndon Mason



Foot and Ankle Structured SBA Questions



Anatomy and Biomechanics





1. From the options listed below, please choose the most appropriate description of the anatomy of the spring ligament.



A.

Originates on the lateral malleolus and inserts onto the lateral aspect of the talus


B.

Originates on the medial malleolus and inserts onto the medial wall of the calcaneum


C.

Originates on the medial malleolus and inserts onto the medial aspect of the talus


D.

Originates on the navicular and inserts onto the medial cuneiform


E.

Originates on the sustentaculum tali and inserts onto the navicular



2. From the options listed below, please choose the most appropriate anatomical structure to occur in the third layer of the foot.



A.

Abductor digiti minimi


B.

Adductor hallucis


C.

Peroneus longus


D.

Plantar interossei


E.

Quadratus plantae



3. From the options listed below, please choose the most appropriate muscle that plantar flexes the 1st metatarsal.



A.

Flexor hallucis brevis


B.

Flexor hallucis longus


C.

Peroneus longus


D.

Tibialis anterior


E.

Tibialis posterior



4. From the options listed below, please choose the most appropriate description of the anatomy of the Lisfranc ligament.



A.

Dorsal ligament between to medial cuneiform and the 2nd metatarsal


B.

Interosseous ligament between the medial cuneiform and the 2nd metatarsal


C.

Plantar ligament between the 2nd metatarsal and 5th metatarsal


D.

Plantar ligament between the intermediate cuneiform and the 2nd metatarsal base


E.

Plantar ligament between the medial cuneiform and the 2nd metatarsal



5. What structure attaches to the plantar surface of the hallucal sesamoids?



A.

Abductor hallucis


B.

Adductor hallucis


C.

Flexor hallucis brevis


D.

Lateral sesamoid ligament


E

Medial sesamoid ligament



6. What is the main blood supply of the talar body?



A.

Anterior tibia artery


B.

Artery of the sinus tarsi


C.

Perforator artery


D.

Peroneal artery


E.

Posterior tibial artery



7. Which muscle contracts eccentrically during the heel strike phase of the gait cycle?



A.

Extensor hallucis longus


B.

Lateral head of gastrocnemius


C.

Medial head of gastrocnemius


D.

Tibialis anterior


E.

Tibialis posterior



8. What nerve supplies adductor hallucis?



A.

Baxter’s nerve


B.

Deep peroneal nerve


C.

Lateral plantar nerve


D.

Medial plantar nerve


E.

Superficial peroneal nerve



Achilles and Heel





9. What is the most common aetiological factor for plantar fasciopathy?



A.

Calf tightness


B.

Depression


C.

Obesity


D.

Smoking


E.

Job requiring standing



10. Which of the following best describes the reactive phase of Achilles tendinopathy?



A.

Increased production of large proteoglycans, which bind with large amounts of water


B.

Cell death, minimal fibrillar collagen


C.

Collagen fibre dysrepair, increased chondrocytic cellularity


D.

Production of type III collagen


E.

Ingrowth of neovessels



11. What is the most likely diagnosis with pain occurring on calcaneal squeeze test?



A.

Calcaneal fracture


B.

Flexor hallucis longus tendinopathy


C.

Plantar fasciopathy


D.

Radiculopathy


E.

Tarsal tunnel syndrome



12. What is the most common diagnosis when pain occurs on palpation of the medial plantar aspect of the calcaneum?



A.

Insertional Achilles tendinopathy


B.

Insertional plantar fasciopathy


C.

Medial calcaneal nerve neuropraxia


D.

Non-insertional Achilles tendinopathy


E.

Tarsal tunnel syndrome



13. What is the first line treatment of plantar fasciopathy?



A.

Laser therapy


B.

Physiotherapy


C.

Mechanical overload reduction


D.

Shockwave therapy


E.

Ultrasound-guided pulse radiofrequency



14. What is the most effective treatment for non-insertional Achilles tendinopathy in the literature?



A.

Autologous blood injection


B.

Exercise


C.

GTN patches


D.

Orthotic


E.

Polidocanol injection



15. What statement is true in regard to Achilles tendon ruptures?



A.

Functional rehabilitation is equal to surgical treatment regarding the incidence of re-rupture


B.

Immobilisation increases load to failure


C.

In the acute phase, collagen type I is the first collagen that is layered down


D.

Use extrinsic healing with passive motion


E.

Use of heel wedges in functional rehabilitation works by shortening tendon



Midfoot





16. Which statement is true in regard to Lisfranc injuries?



A.

A tightrope controls axial movement


B.

Fusion improves functional outcome as compared to fixation


C.

Quality of anatomical reduction is the best predictor of functional outcomes


D.

MRI is indicated when radiographs show diastasis


E.

Transarticular screws reduce movement at the tarsometatarsal joint as compared to bridge plate



17. ‘Too many toes’ sign would most likely be seen in which case?



A.

Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease


B.

Fibular hemimelia


C.

Stage IIA tibialis posterior tendon dysfunction


D.

Stage IIB tibialis posterior tendon dysfunction


E.

Iselin’s disease



18. At the level of the navicular, when harvesting flexor digitorum longus for tibialis posterior tendon reconstruction, what structure lies immediately dorsal or deep to it?



A.

Adductor hallucis


B.

Baxter’s nerve


C.

Flexor hallucis longus


D.

Lumbricals


E.

Plantar fascia



19. A patient attends your clinic after transfer of care. They attend with an in-shoe orthotic in a bag. The orthotic is built up on the lateral side of the heel and contains a depressed section at the medial aspect of the forefoot.


What condition would the likely pathology be associated with?



A.

Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease with foot drop


B.

Diastematomyelia with grade 5 power in all muscle groups


C.

Rheumatoid arthritis


D.

Tarsal coalition


E.

Varus malunion of os calcis with post-traumatic osteoarthritis subtalar joint



20. A 53-year-old is currently being operated on for a fixed flat foot deformity. The surgeon has just completed preparation of the hindfoot for fusion, reduced it and held it with guidewires.


The surgeon notes a forefoot deformity that will require intervention. What is the deformity likely to be?



A.

Abduction and supination deformity


B.

Adduction deformity


C.

Pronation deformity


D.

Valgus deformity


E.

Varus deformity



21. A patient attends clinic for the results of an excision biopsy performed from a discrete firm lesion in the foot. The histopathology report included no cell atypia, myofibroblast proliferation and collagen proliferation of type III collagen more so than type I collagen.


What is the likely diagnosis?



A.

Fibromyxoma


B.

Gardner’s disease


C.

Ledderhose disease


D.

Lipoma


E.

Synovial sarcoma



Forefoot





22. A 42-year-old female attends with a painful bunion she has had for the past 2 years. She has failed conservative measures. On examination, there is no first ray instability or pain on grind test. Her radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle of 25°and intermetatarsal angle of 12°.


What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?



A.

Basal osteotomy


B.

Distal chevron osteotomy


C.

Lapidus fusion


D.

Moberg osteotomy


E.

Proximal phalanx osteotomy



23. A 42-year-female with a bunion presents with pain on shod weight bearing originating at the 2nd and 3rd metatarsal heads.


Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?



A.

Claw toe


B.

Freiberg’s disease


C.

Plantar plate rupture


D.

Morton’s neuroma


E.

MTP joint synovitis



24. A 23-year-old professional footballer sustains an undisplaced diaphyseal proximal 5th metatarsal fracture during training after a few weeks of grumbling about foot pain.


What is the most appropriate treatment?



A.

Cast immobilisation and non-weight bearing


B.

Internal fixation


C.

Metatarsal strapping and full weight bearing


D.

Metatarsal strapping and non-weight bearing


E.

Stiff shoe



25. What is the most frequent iatrogenic complication of excision of both tibial and fibular sesamoids of the hallux?



A.

Flexor hallucis longus tendonitis


B.

Hallux valgus


C.

Hallux varus


D.

Intractable keratosis


E.

Weakness on tip toe stance



26. Floating toe is an iatrogenic complication most frequently associated with which procedure?



A.

Keller’s resection arthroplasty


B.

Kidner’s procedure


C.

Morton’s neuroma excision


D.

Stainsby procedure


E.

Weil metatarsal osteotomy



27. What force on the proximal phalanx is created by the abductor hallucis in a hallux valgus deformity?



A.

Adduction


B.

Adduction and supination


C.

Dorsiflexion and pronation


D.

Plantar flexion


E.

Plantar flexion and pronation



28. A fit and healthy 75-year-old presents to clinic with pain, stiffness, swelling, erythema over her left 1st metatarsal phalangeal joint (MTPJ) following a silastic 1st MTPJ arthroplasty performed 12 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate osteolysis around the component and a valgus deformity. Blood tests are normal with regard to full blood picture, erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein.


What is the appropriate treatment?



A.

First stage of two-stage 1st MTPJ fusion


B.

Revision to 1st MTPJ fusion with inlay bone graft


C.

Revision to excision arthroplasty


D.

Revision to silastic arthroplasty


E.

Steroid injection



29. An 18-year-old young woman presents with forefoot pain and stiffness of the 2nd metatarsal phalangeal joint. Pain worsened on axial loading of the joint. Radiographs demonstrate arthrosis and flattening of the metatarsal head.


What is the likely diagnosis?



A.

Kohler’s disease


B.

Sever’s disease


C.

Freiberg’s disease


D.

Mueller–Weiss syndrome


E.

Turf toe



30. A 1-year-old female infant is brought into your clinic. Her mother is concerned about her 4th toes bilaterally. They appear to be shortened and overlapping the 5th toes. Radiographs demonstrate disruption of Maestro’s parabola and premature closure of the 4th metatarsal physis. You also notice the child to be smaller than average, with a short, webbed neck.


What condition could this child have?



A.

Klippel–Feil syndrome


B.

Poland syndrome


C.

Sprengel deformity


D.

Trisomy 21


E.

Turner’s syndrome



31. An 83-year-old nursing home patient presents with pain over 2nd toe, inability to fit into shoes, chronic paronychia and an ulcer over the 2nd toe proximal interphalangeal joint (PIPJ). The PIPJ is fixed in flexion, the metatarsal phalangeal joint (MTPJ) is slightly extended and the distal interphalangeal joint (DIPJ) is hyperextended and flexible.


What is the most appropriate treatment?



A.

Amputation through proximal one-third of proximal phalanx


B.

MTPJ release + DIPJ fusion


C.

MTPJ release + flexor to extensor transfer + temporary K-wire fixation


D.

MTPJ release + MTPJ replacement


E.

MTPJ release + PIPJ fusion + temporary K-wire fixation



32. A 46-year-old man presents with pain in the right 1st metatarsal phalangeal joint (MTPJ). He recalls a rugby injury to the joint 20 years ago. On examination he has moderate pain on end range of motion, reduced range of motion (10° dorsiflexion, 50° plantar flexion) and pain on axial loading of the 1st MTPJ. Radiographs demonstrate around 40% joint space narrowing with dorsal osteophyte on the metatarsal and phalanx. He has failed conservative treatment and still wishes to play rugby.


What is the most appropriate treatment?



A.

Dorsal cheilectomy


B.

Keller’s procedure


C.

MTPJ arthrodesis


D.

MTPJ arthroplasty


E.

Synovectomy



33. When performing a scarf osteotomy in an otherwise normally aligned foot, to avoid shortening or lengthening the 1st metatarsal, what landmark or reference point should be used for your distal transverse cut?



A.

Parallel to proximal phalanx base joint surface


B.

Parallel with the 5th metatarsal phalangeal (MTP) joint


C.

Perpendicular to 1st metatarsal


D.

Perpendicular to 2nd metatarsal


E.

Perpendicular to cut surface after removing medial eminence



34. An 18-month-old presents to your clinic with bilateral deformities of their 4th and 5th toes. On examination, there is a flexion and varus deformity to all toes.


What is the likely cause of the deformities?



A.

Absence of extensor digitorum


B.

Central nervous system lesion


C.

Congenital bands around toes


D.

Contracture of flexor digitorum longus and/or brevis.


E.

Delta phalanx



Ankle





35. A 28-year-old man is seen in a nurse-led dressings clinic 2 weeks after arthroscopic ankle surgery. He is complaining of persistent numbness over the dorsum of his foot but not in the first web space.


What is the most likely cause of this complication?



A.

Anterocentral portal placement


B.

Anterolateral portal placement


C.

Anteromedial portal placement


D.

Posterolateral portal placement


E.

Posteromedial portal placement



36. A normally fit and well 32-year-old- woman is taken to theatre for examination under anaesthesia for chronic ankle instability despite several courses of physiotherapy. On the lateral image, 10mm of forward shift is demonstrated during an anterior drawer test compared to the unaffected ankle.


Which ligament is most likely damaged?



A.

Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament


B.

Anterior talar fibular ligament


C.

Calcaneofibular ligament


D.

Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament


E.

Posterior talar fibular ligament



37. A 43-year-old man sustains as pronation external rotation injury to his left ankle while playing football. Initial radiographs show increased tibiofibular clear space.


Which of these is the correct group of ligaments which form the structure that is injured, resulting in the increased tibiofibular clear space?



A.

AITFL, ATFL, PITFL


B.

AITFL, IOL, CFL


C.

AITFL, IOL, PITFL


D.

PITFL, CFL, ATFL


E.

PITFL, IOL, ATFL



38. A patient is brought into the emergency department after sustaining an ankle injury while playing basketball. The ankle is grossly swollen and tender. Radiographs show a pronation external rotation injury pattern.


Which answer best describes the sequence of injury?



A.

ATFL disruption, oblique fibula fracture at the level of the syndesmosis, PITFL disruption or posterior malleolus fracture, transverse medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament injury


B.

Medial malleolus transverse fracture or deltoid disruption, ATFL disruption, lateral short oblique fracture or spiral fracture of the fibula above the syndesmosis, PITFL avulsion or posterior malleolus fracture


C.

Medial malleolus transverse fracture or deltoid disruption, ATFL disruption, lateral short oblique/ spiral fracture of the fibula below the syndesmosis, PITFL avulsion or posterior malleolus fracture


D.

Medial malleolus transverse fracture or deltoid disruption, ATFL disruption, transverse or comminuted fibula fracture above the level of the syndesmosis.


E.

Vertical medial malleolus fracture, ATFL disruption or fibula fracture below the joint line



39. A 30-year-old keen cross country runner presents to a foot and ankle clinic with non-specific ankle pain and occasional swelling. They describe a couple of episodes of mild ankle sprains over the past couple of years. An osteochondral defect of the talus is suspected.


What is the most common location for these injuries on the talus?



A.

Anterior lateral talar dome


B.

Central anterior talar dome


C.

Central lateral talar dome


D.

Central medial talar dome


E.

Posterior medial talar dome



40. A 70-year-old man presents to an elective foot and ankle clinic with pain in his right ankle. He had an ankle injury 30 years ago, which he was told could not be operated on at the time and was managed in a cast. Weight bearing ankle radiographs show end stage ankle arthritis. The patient has decided on an ankle arthrodesis for treatment.


During ankle arthrodesis surgery, what is the ideal position of the ankle?



A.

10° dorsiflexion, 10° external rotation, 5° hindfoot valgus


B.

10° dorsiflexion, neutral external rotation, 5° hindfoot valgus


C.

Neutral dorsiflexion, 10 ° external rotation, 5° hindfoot varus


D.

Neutral dorsiflexion, 10° external rotation, 5° hindfoot valgus


E.

Neutral dorsiflexion, neutral external rotation, 5° hindfoot valgus



41. What is the risk of talus avascular necrosis following a talar neck fracture associated with subtalar dislocation?



A.

0–5%


B.

5–10%


C.

15–20%


D.

55–60%


E.

95–100%



42. What ankle position at the time sustaining a Pilon fracture results in the worst outcomes?



A.

Dorsiflexion


B.

Neutral


C.

Plantar flexion


D.

Valgus


E.

Varus


Jan 14, 2021 | Posted by in ORTHOPEDIC | Comments Off on Chapter 7 – Foot and Ankle Structured SBA

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