Chapter 15 – Hand II Structured SBA




Abstract




Hand II Structured SBA Questions





Chapter 15 Hand II Structured SBA


Matthew Brown and David Yeoh



Hand II Structured SBA Questions





1. A 29-year-old butcher presents after sustaining a palmar knife laceration over the proximal phalanx. He is unable to flex his non-dominant index finger. Neurovascular examination is unremarkable.


What is the most appropriate management plan?



A.

Four-strand core suture repair with early active mobilisation


B.

Four-strand core suture repair with position of safe immobilisation (POSI) for 2 weeks


C.

Monofilament core suture repair with 5mm tendon purchase


D.

Two-strand core suture repair of FDS and FDP with early active mobilisation


E.

Urgent ultrasound



2. A 37-year-old chef sustains a laceration to his non-dominant thumb on the palmar aspect overlying the proximal phalanx. Active thumb flexion is painful. There is no neurovascular compromise.


How would you manage this patient?



A.

Tendon debridement and A1 pulley release


B.

Washout and closure in the emergency department with clinical review in one week


C.

Washout and closure in theatre with urgent referral to hand therapy


D.

Washout and tendon repair for lacerations greater than 30% of cross-sectional area


E.

Washout and tendon repair for lacerations greater than 50% of cross-sectional area



3. A 57-year-old cabinet maker undergoes flexor tendon repairs of their non-dominant index, middle and ring fingers.


Which of the following postoperative management plans is most appropriate?



A.

Dorsal splintage, wrist neutral, MCPJ flexed, PIPJ straight and active flexion from day 5


B.

Place and hold mobilisation from day 3 (passive flexion and active extension)


C.

Position of safe immobilisation dorsal splintage and active mobilisation from day 10


D.

Position of safe immobilisation volar splintage and mobilisation from day 2


E.

Volar splintage, wrist neutral, MCPJ flexed, PIPJ straight and active extension from day 5



4. A 39-year-old bricklayer presents with dorsal wrist pain on exertion. No injury is recalled. Radiographs demonstrate a scapholunate angle of 70 degrees and no degenerative change. Grip strength is reduced.


Which is the most appropriate management option?



A.

Intercarpal ligament repair


B.

Limited carpal fusion (e.g. four corner)


C.

Neurectomy of the posterior interosseous nerve


D.

Open reduction and temporary K-wire fixation


E.

Scapholunate ligament reconstruction using tendon graft



5. A 69-year-old retired grocer presents with ulnar-sided wrist pain and evidence of a TFCC lesion.


Which of the following is true regarding the TFCC?



A.

Magnetic resonance arthrography is the gold standard for diagnosis


B.

Peripheral tears are often associated with DRUJ instability


C.

The 6U arthroscopy portal provides the best view


D.

Traumatic (Palmer type I) tears are usually due to ulnocarpal abutment


E.

Ulnar minus variance is frequently implicated



6. An 18-year-old courier falls from his motorbike and presents 4 weeks later with dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate an increased capitolunate angle, a scapholunate angle of 25 degrees and no associated fractures.


Which is most accurate regarding this injury?



A.

Abnormal lunate extension is seen


B.

Kirk-Watson testing will produce a painful clunk


C.

The dorsal component of the injured ligament is usually the strongest


D.

The scapholunate interosseous ligament is likely to be intact


E.

Urgent wrist arthroscopy and suture anchor repair is indicated



7. A 24-year-old snowboarder presents with wrist pain. The scaphoid shift test is positive. Plain radiographs are unremarkable.


Which of the following is considered the gold standard to confirm the diagnosis?



A.

Computed tomography (CT)


B.

Dynamic ultrasound


C.

Magnetic resonance arthrography (MRA)


D.

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)


E.

Wrist arthroscopy



8. A 30-year-old financier sustains closed mallet injuries to their dominant index and middle fingers while skiing. The fractures involve 30% and 20% of the distal phalanx articular surfaces, respectively. There is slight subluxation of the index finger distal phalanx.


How would you manage these injuries initially?



A.

Extension splintage of the DIPJs and PIPJs of both digits and check radiographs


B.

Extension splintage of the DIPJs of both digits and check radiographs


C.

Open fixation of the index finger DIPJ and middle finger splintage


D.

Percutaneous pinning of both digits with removal of wires at 8 weeks


E.

Percutaneous pinning of the index finger DIPJ and middle finger splintage



9. An 18-year-old gymnast sustains a closed fracture-subluxation of his ring finger PIPJ. The AP radiograph demonstrates satisfactory alignment; however, the lateral radiograph shows an intra-articular volar base fracture with dorsal subluxation of the middle phalanx. The fracture involves 30% of the articular surface.


How would you manage this case initially?



A.

Buddy strapping and early mobilisation


B.

Dynamic external fixator frame


C.

Open reduction and internal fixation through a dorsal approach


D.

Reduction and dorsal blocking splint with the IPJs extended with check radiographs


E.

Reduction and dorsal blocking splint with the PIPJ flexed to 30 degrees with check radiographs



10. A 26-year-old mechanic presents with radial-sided wrist pain 7 months after a fall. Plain radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid fracture non-union of the proximal pole. There is sclerosis of the proximal fragment. Carpal height and alignment are well-maintained.


What is the most appropriate management?



A.

Limited carpal fusion


B.

Open screw fixation and inlay corticocancellous bone graft


C.

Open screw fixation and vascularised bone graft


D.

Percutaneous screw fixation


E.

Scaphoidectomy and radial styloidectomy



11. A 30-year-old tree surgeon accidentally amputates his non-dominant thumb through the proximal phalanx with a circular saw. Three hours later he arrives at the emergency department with the digit held in a bag.


What is the preferred definitive management?



A.

Debridement and primary closure


B.

Debridement and replantation in order: artery, bone, nerve, vein, extensor, flexor


C.

Debridement and replantation in order: artery, bone, vein, extensor, flexor, nerve


D.

Debridement and replantation in order: bone, artery, extensor, flexor, nerve, vein


E.

Debridement and replantation in order: bone, extensor, flexor, artery, nerve, vein



12. A 39-year-old lawyer presents with pain over his middle finger 2 weeks following a closed injury while playing football. His PIPJ is swollen but stable. Elson’s test is positive.


How would you manage this patient?



A.

Buddy strapping


B.

Central slip repair


C.

Lateral band transfer (e.g. Littler procedure)


D.

PIPJ extension splintage


E.

Position of safe immobilisation (POSI) cast



13. A 55-year-old woman presents with pain and altered sensation in the median nerve distribution following volar plate fixation of a distal radius fracture. Autonomic function remains intact. She describes no sensory impairment prior to surgery. Electromyography completed 6 weeks following surgery demonstrates fibrillations and positive sharp waves in the abductor pollicis brevis. A Tinel is elicited over the scar.


Which pair represents the most likely nerve injury and most appropriate management plan?



A.

Axonotmesis / nerve exploration


B.

Axonotmesis / repeat nerve conduction studies in 6 weeks


C.

Conduction block / clinical review in 6 weeks


D.

Neurotmesis / nerve exploration


E.

Neurotmesis / repeat nerve conduction studies in 6 weeks



14. A 42-year-old cyclist presents 3 months following a radial head replacement, which was complicated by a nerve palsy. He is now able to weakly extend the index, middle, ring and little fingers. Thumb retropulsion is not seen. A Tinel is present in the midforearm.


What is the most appropriate next step in management?



A.

Electrophysiological studies and continue to monitor


B.

Electrophysiological studies and exploration of the nerve


C.

Revision radial head replacement


D.

Ultrasound scan


E.

Urgent referral to a peripheral nerve injury unit



15. A 5-year-old girl presents with a unilateral small thumb. The thenar eminence is hypoplastic, and the MCP joint ulnar collateral ligament is lax. Plain radiographs demonstrate intact MCP and CMC joints.


What is the most appropriate management plan?



A.

FDS to FPL tendon transfer


B.

Opponensplasty and stabilisation


C.

Pollicisation


D.

Reassurance and annual observation


E.

Toe-to-thumb transfer



16. A 43-year-old woman presents with a progressive flexion contracture of her right index finger. She states that her father has a similar problem. She underwent corrective surgery 5 years ago. On examination, there are flexion contractures of the MCPJ (70 degrees, uncorrectable) and PIPJ (10 degrees, passively correctable). A mature scar is visible.


What is the most appropriate management plan in the first instance?



A.

Collagenase clostridium histolyticum


B.

Dermofasciectomy


C.

Percutaneous needle fasciotomy


D.

Limited fasciectomy


E.

Observation and review in 4–6 months



17. An 80-year-old man presents with an enlarging mass on the volar aspect of his forearm. It measures 5.5cm in maximal diameter. He denies a history of trauma. Plain radiographs are unremarkable.


What investigation should be performed next?



A.

Fine needle aspiration cytology


B.

Magnetic resonance (MR) imaging


C.

Magnetic resonance (MR) imaging with gadolinium


D.

Plain radiograph of the chest


E.

Ultrasound by a musculoskeletal radiologist



18. A 53-year-old architect presents with a 4-month history of a mildly tender palmar nodule in line with the little finger at the level of the distal palmar crease. His father had a similar condition. Full digital extension is observed.


Which of the following is most accurate?



A.

Cleland’s ligament is rarely implicated


B.

Cortisone injection may modify disease progression


C.

Fine needle aspiration cytology will be useful


D.

Myofibroblasts will predominate


E.

Urgent ultrasound is indicated



19. A 35-year-old chemist presents with a chronic radial nerve palsy following a humeral fracture sustained 18 months ago. His hand function is compromised.


What is the most appropriate definitive management plan?



A.

Extensor carpi ulnaris to extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon transfer


B.

Flexor digitorum superficialis (ring finger) to extensor carpi radialis longus tendon transfer


C.

Palmaris longus to extensor carpi radialis longus tendon transfer


D.

Pronator teres to extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon transfer


E.

Radial nerve exploration



20. A 24-year-old engineer falls while skiing and sustains a displaced proximal pole scaphoid fracture.


What is the most appropriate management option?



A.

Cast immobilisation


B.

Internal fixation and iliac crest bone graft via volar approach


C.

Internal fixation and vascularised bone graft via dorsal approach


D.

Internal fixation via dorsal approach


E.

Internal fixation via volar approach



21. A 15-year-old presents with bilateral wrist deformities and limited forearm rotation. The ulnar heads are especially prominent. She is noted to be of short stature. Plain radiographs demonstrate increased radial inclination.


What is the likely diagnosis?



A.

Apert syndrome


B.

Cleidocranial dysplasia


C.

Leri–Weill syndrome


D.

Marfan’s syndrome


E.

Radioulnar synostosis



22. A 55-year-old florist presents with a scaphoid wrist fracture following a high-energy injury. Radiographs demonstrate a 1mm cortical step on the radial cortex.


What is the most appropriate management plan?



A.

Above elbow cast (thumb excluded) for 8 weeks


B.

Below elbow cast (thumb excluded) for 8 weeks


C.

Below elbow cast (thumb included) for 8 weeks


D.

Fixation and autologous bone grafting


E.

Percutaneous fixation



23. A 19-year-old falls onto his outstretched hand while snowboarding. He has a suspected scaphoid fracture.


Which plain radiographic view is least helpful?



A.

Clenched fist anteroposterior (AP)


B.

Lateral


C.

PA with ulnar deviation


D.

Posteroanterior (PA)


E.

Semi-pronated oblique



24. A 31-year-old mechanic accidentally injects the tip of his non-dominant index finger with a high-power grease gun.


What is the most appropriate first step in the management of this patient?



A.

Broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration of tetanus prophylaxis


B.

Fluid resuscitation


C.

Irrigation and debridement on the next available operating list


D.

Plain radiographs


E.

Urgent irrigation and debridement



25. A patient presents with a flexion contracture of their ring finger secondary to Dupuytren’s disease. The MCPJ is flexed to 40° and the PIPJ is flexed to 20°.


Which of the following structures is least likely to be affected?



A.

Grayson’s ligament


B.

Lateral band


C.

Lateral digital sheet


D.

Pretendinous band


E.

Spiral band



26. A 42-year-old marine biologist presents with a displaced intra-articular fracture of the thumb metacarpal base. Plain radiographs demonstrate a two-part fracture.


Which is true regarding the management of such fractures?



A.

Adductor pollicis and extensor pollicis brevis are the primary deforming forces


B.

Open reduction is required to ensure articular congruity


C.

Reduction requires supination and longitudinal traction


D.

The anterior oblique (beak) ligament is often spared


E.

Thumb spica application requires palmar pressure to be maintained



27. A 53-year-old librarian presents with a long history of morning stiffness and a symmetric polyarthropathy of the hands. She is positive for serum anti-CCP antibodies.


Which of the following clinical findings would not be expected?



A.

Splenomegaly


B.

Swan neck deformity


C.

Thumb Boutonnière (Nalebuff 1)


D.

Ulnar deviation and volar subluxation of the digits


E.

Ulnar deviation of the carpus



28. A 17-year-old cyclist falls from his bike and sustains a deep defect over his dominant thenar eminence. Tissue loss measures 4 x 3 cm, and the underlying muscle and fascia are exposed.


What is the most appropriate definitive management plan for this patient?



A.

Free muscle flap


B.

Full-thickness skin graft


C.

Meshed split-thickness skin graft


D.

Negative pressure wound therapy


E.

Non-meshed split-thickness skin graft



29. A 24-year-old amateur tennis player presents with chronic dominant wrist pain. Examination reveals a painful ‘catch-up’ clunk as the wrist is moved from radial to ulnar deviation. No history of trauma is recalled. She has Ehlers–Danlos syndrome.


What is the most likely diagnosis?



A.

Distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability


B.

Dorsal intercalated segment instability (DISI)


C.

Flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) instability


D.

Midcarpal instability


E.

Triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) tear



30. A 45-year-old undergoes carpal tunnel decompression under local anaesthetic.


Which local anaesthetic option would you choose?



A.

2.5mg/kg of bupivacaine 0.5% with adrenaline (1:200 000)


B.

3mg/kg of bupivacaine 0.5%


C.

3mg/kg of lidocaine 1% with adrenaline (1:10 000)


D.

6mg/kg of lidocaine 1% with adrenaline (1:10 000)


E.

8mg/kg of lidocaine 2% with adrenaline (1:200 000)



31. A 59-year-old carpenter sustains a transverse amputation through the tip of his non-dominant index finger while using a circular saw. The tip of the distal phalanx is exposed, and the defect cannot be closed primarily.


What reconstruction technique would be preferred?



A.

Full-thickness skin graft


B.

Moberg advancement flap


C.

Split-thickness skin graft


D.

V-Y advancement flap


E.

Z-plasty



32. A 19-year-old student presents with a painful ‘snapping’ sensation along their middle finger after punching a wall 3 months ago. Plain radiographs are unremarkable.


How would you manage this patient?



A.

Central slip repair or reconstruction


B.

Lateral band repair or reconstruction


C.

Oblique retinacular ligament repair or reconstruction


D.

Sagittal band repair or reconstruction


E.

Ultrasound-guided cortisone injection



33. A 65-year-old retired baker presents with an inability to extend her thumb. Three months ago, she sustained a distal radius fracture that was managed non-operatively.


How would you manage this patient?



A.

EIP to EPL tendon transfer


B.

EPL to APB tenodesis


C.

Primary tendon repair


D.

Splintage and hand therapy


E.

Tendon repair with interposition grafting



34. A 75-year-old female presents with dominant radial-sided wrist pain of 8 months’ duration. Thumb movements and ulnar deviation of the wrist are particularly uncomfortable. On examination, she has a positive Finkelstein’s test.


Which of the following is correct?



A.

Early tendon sheath release is the treatment of choice


B.

Intersection syndrome is the likely diagnosis


C.

The condition is often self-limiting


D.

There are usually two tendon slips in the affected compartment


E.

Ultrasound is required



35. A 25-year-old personal trainer presents with a 6-month history of central wrist pain and stiffness. Plain radiographs are unremarkable except for ulnar negative variance of 3mm. He recalls no history of trauma and is a non-smoker. He has been treated with a period of immobilisation in a cast but remains in pain.


How would you manage this patient?



A.

Proximal row carpectomy


B.

Radial lengthening osteotomy


C.

Radial shortening osteotomy


D.

Scaphoidectomy and four-corner arthrodesis


E.

Ulnar lengthening osteotomy



36. A 35-year old manual labourer presents with a 12-month history of worsening wrist pain. He fractured the ipsilateral distal radius 6 years ago. There is pain on ulnar deviation during power grip. Plain radiographs demonstrate ulnar positive variance of 3mm and 10 degrees of distal radius dorsal angulation. The TFCC is intact but attenuated.


How would you manage this patient?



A.

Arthroscopic debridement and stabilisation


B.

Darrach procedure


C.

Sauvé-Kapandji procedure


D.

Ulnar head replacement


E.

Ulnar-shortening osteotomy



37. A 19-year-old shop assistant presents 10 hours after a dog bite to their dominant index finger. The digit is painful, erythematous and held semi-flexed. They take no regular medications.


What is the preferred initial management of this patient?



A.

Incision and drainage through a single incision


B.

Incision and drainage through two incisions


C.

Intravenous antibiotics and elevation


D.

Oral antibiotics and splintage


E.

Urgent ultrasound



38. A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with a correctable deformity of her middle finger. Pain is not a feature, and there is no history of trauma. There is resting hyperextension of the PIPJ and flexion of the DIPJ and full active range of movement. Plain radiographs demonstrate moderate erosive changes. Conservative measures have failed.


What is the most appropriate definitive management?



A.

Extensor tenotomy


B.

Flexor tendon tenodesis (FDS sling)


C.

Oval-8 splintage


D.

PIPJ arthrodesis


E.

PIPJ arthroplasty and volar plate advancement



39. A 74-year-old retired caretaker is referred with digital clawing. On examination there is altered sensation in his little finger.


Which of the following statements is correct?



A.

A Martin-Gruber anastomosis will limit the effectiveness of surgical treatment


B.

Clawing is secondary to FDS weakness


C.

Clinical diagnosis, confirmed with nerve conduction studies, is the gold standard


D.

Medial elbow pain secondary to neuroma formation is a cause of recurrence


E.

The ligament of Struthers is a potential site of compression



40. A 25-year-old professional swimmer presents with altered sensation in the radial three digits of his dominant hand. Sensation over the thenar eminence is reduced. Night symptoms are not a particular feature, but certain movements bring on paraesthesia. Provocative tests over the carpal tunnel, neurophysiological testing and magnetic resonance imaging are all unremarkable.


What is the most likely diagnosis?



A.

Carpal tunnel syndrome


B.

Intersection syndrome


C.

Pronator syndrome


D.

Schwannoma


E.

Wartenberg’s syndrome


Jan 14, 2021 | Posted by in ORTHOPEDIC | Comments Off on Chapter 15 – Hand II Structured SBA

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