Abstract
Knee II Structured SBA Questions
Knee II Structured SBA Questions
1. While performing a posteromedial approach to the knee, which of the following structures helps you identify the correct plane?
2. When performing a knee posterolateral corner reconstruction, which of the following structures has the most anterior femoral insertion point?
3. All of the following are considered part of the posteromedial corner of the knee apart from which structure?
4. A 24-year-old male sustained a grade III PLC injury of his knee following a skiing injury 2 years previously. He is listed for surgery for chronic pain and instability.
Which of the following is the most essential structure to identify while performing a posterolateral corner reconstruction?
5. When climbing stairs, roughly how does a patient’s body weight correlate with their joint reaction force of their patellofemoral joint?
7. You review a young adult who presents with a painless knee swelling and intermittent locking with no history of trauma. MRI is shown in Figure 6.1. This demonstrates a joint effusion with a mass like synovial proliferation with lobulated margins.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Figure 6.1 MRI scan knee
8. A colleague has performed a knee arthroscopy on a 45-year-old male 6 weeks ago. The operation note states the only abnormal finding was mild cartilage thinning medially (grade I). He continues to complain of knee pain.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
9. You are supervising a trainee perform a knee arthroscopy on a 25-year-old female. You notice they have made their anterolateral arthroscopy portal quite inferior to where you had wanted. A complication occurs due to this portal placement.
What piece of equipment will you ask for to deal with this complication?
10. A young female presents with snapping of her knee with episodes of locking. Sagittal MRI images of her lateral compartment show three 5mm-thick contiguous images of her meniscus from anterior to posterior horns with no tears obvious.
What is your next management step?
11. You review a young female with the results of her MRI after a twisting knee injury. You are pleased to see she is now asymptomatic but note that within the lateral compartment of the knee her MRI demonstrates ‘a minimal meniscal width to maximal tibial width (on coronal slice) of 40%, and a ratio of the sum of the width of both lateral horns to the maximal meniscal diameter (on sagittal slice) of 80%’.
What is your management plan?
12. You review a 10-year-old boy with lateral knee pain. MRI shows five sagittal slices of 5mm-thick contiguous lateral meniscus from anterior to posterior horns.
Which of the following x-ray findings is associated with the diagnosis?
13. You are performing an arthroscopic PCL reconstruction and utilise x-ray guidance while drilling the tibial tunnel.
Which complication are you hoping to reduce with the use of x-ray fluoroscopy?
14. During ACL surgery, you prematurely amputate the semitendinosus hamstring graft at a length of about 7cm.
What is the likely intraoperative mistake?
15. At a 6-week postoperative review of one of your ACL reconstructions they complain of ongoing numbness over the medial border of their foot on the same side as their ACL reconstruction.
What is the likely graft that this patient has had?
16. You have been asked to review one of your ACL reconstructions at 3 months postoperatively by the physiotherapist. They are concerned that the patient is unable to fully extend their knee.
What is the likely intraoperative mistake?
You have a cortical ‘blowout’ while reaming the femoral tunnel; therefore, you secured the graft with a larger-than-normal femoral button
The entry point for the tibial tunnel is 2mm anterior to the anterior horn of the lateral meniscus
You prematurely amputate the hamstring graft during harvest, leading you to change your graft choice from quadrupled stranded hamstring graft to a bone–patella–tendon–bone graft
17. You are reviewing a 19-year-old female who plays netball nationally and who underwent an isolated ACL reconstruction 11 months ago. She was really happy with her rehabilitation, but on return to her first contact game at 10 months postoperatively her ACL graft failed. Lachman’s and Pivot shift tests are positive, Dials test is negative. On review of her preoperative MRI, you note an ACL rupture with the presence of a second fracture, but no other abnormality.
What is the most likely cause of their re-rupture?
Related posts:
Chapter 11 – Shoulder/Elbow II Structured SBA
Chapter 20 – Pathology I Structured SBA
Chapter 19 – Structure and Function of Connective Tissue Structured SBA
Chapter 5 – Knee Structured I SBA
Chapter 26 – Clinical Environment, Evidence Management and Quality Improvement Structured SBA
Chapter 15 – Hand II Structured SBA
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