Chapter 4 – Hip II Structured SBA




Abstract




Hip II Structured SBA Questions





Chapter 4 Hip II Structured SBA


James Gill and Majeed Shakokani



Hip II Structured SBA Questions





1. Metal hypersensitivity to orthopaedic implants is classed as what kind of sensitivity?



A.

Type I


B.

Type II


C.

Type III


D.

Type IV


E.

Type V



2. A 78-year-old female has been listed for total hip arthroplasty and noted to have protrusio on her anteroposterior (AP) radiograph.


Which of the following conditions is not commonly associated with acetabular protrusio?



A.

Ankylosing spondylitis


B.

Marfan syndrome


C.

Neurofibromatosis


D.

Paget disease


E.

Rheumatoid arthritis



3. A 42-year-old male presents to the orthopaedic clinic with a 2-month history of left hip pain. His anteroposterior radiograph is shown here (Figure 4.1).





Figure 4.1 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph hips


Which of the following is not associated with his condition?



A.

Glucocerebrosidase gene


B.

HbSS


C.

Protein S deficiency


D.

Scleroderma


E.

Simvastatin



4. A 24-year-old manual labourer presents with severe post-traumatic hip arthritis. Hip fusion has been discussed at the regional MDT.


What is the optimal position for hip arthrodesis?



A.

25° flexion, 5° adduction, 5° external rotation


B.

10° flexion, 10° adduction, 10° external rotation


C.

10° flexion, 5° adduction, 5° external rotation


D.

25° flexion, 0° abduction, 10° internal rotation


E.

25° flexion, 10° abduction, 10° external rotation



5. On counselling the man in question 5 in the outpatient clinic regarding the proposed hip fusion, you mention ipsilateral knee pain as a possible long-term complication of the procedure.


What percentage of patients develop ipsilateral knee pain following hip arthrodesis?



A.

20%


B.

40%


C.

60%


D.

80%


E.

100%



6. Which of the following results in increased abductor muscle force when performing a single leg stance after arthroplasty?



A.

Carrying a bag of shopping with the ipsilateral arm


B.

Medialisation of the acetabular cup


C.

Reducing offset


D.

Trunk lean to the ipsilateral side upon single leg stance


E.

Walking with a stick in the contralateral hand post



7. A patient presents with a fractured metal stem of a total hip arthroplasty. On closer inspection of the previous anteroposterior radiographs of their hip taken 6 months ago, there was evidence of loosening.


In which Gruen zones would loosening be expected in the pre-fracture radiographs in this scenario?



A.

4, 5


B.

4, 5 and 6


C.

1, 2, 6 and 7


D.

7, 6, 4 and 5


E.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7



8. Which of the following is the best mode of imaging to assess for a pseudotumour associated with a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing?



A.

Computed tomography


B.

MARS MRI


C.

SPECT


D.

Ultrasound


E.

White cell scan



9. A 60-year-old male falls off a camel while on holiday in Lanzarote and suffers a fracture to the ceramic head of his left total hip arthroplasty (THA). The THA was performed 2 years previously; components included an uncemented titanium cup with polyethylene liner and an uncemented stem with a ceramic head. Prior to the fall, he was completely happy with the hip.


Which of the following is the most appropriate procedure?



A.

Revision of ceramic head with change of polyethylene liner


B.

Revise to a cobalt-chrome head with change of polyethylene liner


C.

Revise to a metal-on-metal bearing surface


D.

Revise to a metal-lined ceramic head with change of polyethylene liner


E.

Revise all implants



10. Which kind of lubrication predominates in a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty?



A.

Boosted


B.

Boundary


C.

Elastohydrodynamic


D.

Squeeze film


E.

Weeping



11. One year after primary total hip arthroplasty performed using a Southern Moore approach a patient asks why his foot turns inwards when he walks?


The most likely cause would be which of the following?



A.

Excessive acetabular cup anteversion


B.

Excessive retroversion of femoral stem


C.

Failure of the repair of the short external rotators


D.

Palsy of gluteus medius and minimus


E.

Weakness of gluteus maximus



12. When drilling a screw to augment fixation of an uncemented acetabular cup, profuse bleeding is encountered and the patient becomes hypotensive.


Which vessel has been injured?



A.

External iliac


B.

Femoral


C.

Internal iliac


D.

Obturator


E.

Pudendal



13. Which of the following is the correct description of one of the quadrants described for acetabular screw placement?



A.

Anterior superior: Superior to a line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine passing through the centre of the acetabulum and anterior to a line drawn perpendicular to this also passing through the centre of the acetabulum


B.

Posterior inferior: Inferior to a line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine passing through the centre of the acetabulum and posterior to a line drawn perpendicular to this also passing through the centre of the acetabulum


C.

Posterior superior: Superior to a line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine passing through the centre of the acetabulum and posterior to a line drawn perpendicular to this also passing through the centre of the acetabulum


D.

Posterior superior: Superior to a line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine passing through the centre of the acetabulum and inferior to a line drawn perpendicular to this also passing through the centre of the acetabulum


E.

Posterior superior: Posterior to a line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine passing through the centre of the acetabulum and superior to a line drawn perpendicular to this also passing through the centre of the acetabulum



14. A 78-year-old male is listed for total hip arthroplasty (THA). He is a Jehovah’s Witness and does not want any blood products to be given.


What is the best way to reduce blood transfusion requirement in a Jehovah’s Witness undergoing THA?



A.

Autologous blood transfusion


B.

Cell salvage


C.

Erythropoietin


D.

Hypotensive anaesthesia


E.

Wound infiltration with local anaesthetic with adrenaline



15. You are beginning a total hip arthroplasty in theatre in a diabetic. A surgical house officer is assisting you and asks about the infection risk.


Which factor has the biggest influence in reducing prosthetic joint infection?



A.

Antibiotic loaded bone cement


B.

Body exhaust suit


C.

Plastic isolator


D.

Systemic antibiotics


E.

Ultraclean air



16. What is the nerve supply to the superior gemelli?



A.

Nerve to gemelli


B.

Nerve to obturation internus


C.

Nerve to piriformis


D.

Nerve to quadratus femoris


E.

Obturator nerve



17. Which of the following structures exits the greater sciatic foramen and does not re-enter the lesser sciatic foramen?



A.

Nerve to obturator internus


B.

Nerve to quadratus femoris


C.

Obturator externus


D.

Obturator internus


E.

Pudendal nerve



18. Which anatomical structure does not enter the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen?



A.

Internal pudendal artery


B.

Internal pudendal vein


C.

Nerve to obturator internus


D.

Obturator internus


E.

Pudendal nerve



19. Which anatomical variation of the sciatic nerve exiting the greater sciatic foramen is most frequently observed?



A.

Common peroneal division exiting above piriformis and tibial nerve division exiting beneath piriformis


B.

Common peroneal division exiting above piriformis and tibial nerve exiting though piriformis


C.

Common peroneal division passing through piriformis and tibial nerve division exiting beneath piriformis


D.

Sciatic nerve exiting above piriformis


E.

Sciatic nerve exiting through piriformis



20. In the days following a total hip arthroplasty, a patient was found to have 0/5 power in ankle dorsiflexion and foot eversion but 5/5 power in ankle plantar flexion.


Provided the injury was a neuropraxia at the level of the hip joint, which muscle would you expect to recover first on assessment with electromyography?



A.

Adductor magnus


B.

Peroneus longus


C.

Popliteus


D.

Short head of biceps femoris


E.

Tibialis posterior



21. A professional tennis player develops pain around the hip 2 months after metal-on-metal hip resurfacing.


Which imaging modality can detect heterotopic ossification earliest?



A.

Bone scintigraphy


B.

Computed tomography


C.

Magnetic resonance imaging


D.

Radiographs


E.

Ultrasound scan



22. What structures form the teardrop on an anteroposterior radiograph of the pelvis?



A.

Calcified ligamentum teres


B.

Cotyloid fossa, superior aspect of the obturator foramen and the cortical surface of the true pelvis


C.

Dense trabeculae of the origin of the superior public ramus


D.

Osteophyte within the cotyloid fossa


E.

True floor of the acetabulum and the superior pubic ramus



23. Which of the following conditions is associated with increased acetabular anteversion?



A.

Ankylosing spondylitis


B.

Legg–Calve–Perthes disease


C.

Pincer femoral acetabular impingement


D.

Rheumatoid arthritis


E.

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis



24. Acetabular protrusio can be defined using an anteroposterior radiograph as which of the following?



A.

Acetabular fossa medial to the ilioischial line


B.

Acetabular fossa medial to the iliopectineal line


C.

Centre-edge angle greater than 30 degrees


D.

Femoral head medial to ilioischial line


E.

Femoral head medial to iliopectineal line



25. A 37-year-old male who is training for the long-distance triathlon world championships, Ironman Hawaii, presents with a 6-week history of groin pain.


Which of the following diagnoses requires urgent operative intervention?



A.

Cam lesion


B.

Iliotibial band syndrome


C.

Inferior medial femoral neck stress fracture involving 40% of neck width


D.

Piriformis syndrome


E.

Superior lateral femoral neck stress fracture involving 25% of neck width



26. What mechanical property predisposes ceramic to fracture?



A.

Failure at a point below the ultimate tensile strength secondary to repetitive loading


B.

Large area under the stress–strain curve


C.

Low modulus of elasticity


D.

Material that exhibits linear stress stain relationship until the point of failure


E.

Progressive deformation in response to a constant force over a prolonged period



27. Sickle cell disease is associated with which complication following total hip arthroplasty?



A.

Early prosthetic loosening


B.

Higher risk for heterotopic ossification


C.

Increased blood loss


D.

Nerve palsy


E.

Periprosthetic infection



28. Which of the following ligaments is the strongest?



A.

Iliofemoral


B.

Ischiofemoral


C.

Ischiosacral


D.

Ligamentum teres


E.

Pubofemoral



29. Which of the following combinations of implant position is optimal for total hip arthroplasty?



A.

Cup inclination 30°, cup anteversion 20°, femoral stem anteversion 5°


B.

Cup inclination 40°, cup anteversion 15°, femoral stem anteversion 15°


C.

Cup inclination 40°, cup anteversion 20°, femoral stem anteversion 0°


D.

Cup inclination 50°, cup anteversion 30°, femoral stem anteversion 25°


E.

Cup inclination 50°, cup anteversion 40°, femoral stem anteversion 15o



30. When performing a total hip arthroplasty, what is the optimal combined version of the acetabular cup and femoral stem?



A.

20°


B.

35°


C.

50°


D.


E.

65°



31. A patient has suffered multiple dislocations of a total hip arthroplasty and has failed conservative measures.


Which of the following is an indication for a constrained liner?



A.

60° acetabulum inclination


B.

Femoral stem retroversion


C.

Gluteus medius and minimus deficiency


D.

Impingement of the femoral neck on a lipped liner


E.

Neutral version of the acetabulum



32. When performing the Hardinge approach to the hip, neurovascular structures are placed in jeopardy if the gluteus medius is split too far proximally.


What is the maximum safe split above the tip of the greater trochanter that does not place the nerve at risk?



A.

2cm


B.

3cm


C.

4cm


D.

5cm


E.

7cm



33. Which of the following describes a Ward’s triangle?



A.

A sign of osteoporosis


B.

Lateral to the primary compressive trabeculae and medial to the secondary compressive trabeculae


C.

Lateral to the secondary compressive trabeculae and superior to the primary trabeculae


D.

Medial to the primary compressive trabeculae and inferior to the primary tensile trabeculae


E.

Medial to the secondary tensile trabeculae and lateral to the secondary compressive trabeculae



34. Smith-Petersen first described a direct anterior approach to the hip.


Which vessel is sacrificed as part of this approach to the hip?



A.

Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery


B.

Descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery


C.

Descending branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery


D.

Superficial external pudendal artery


E.

Transverse branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery



35. Which size of particles are thought to be most biologically active?



A.

0.1µm


B.

0.5µm


C.

1.0µm


D.

1.5µm


E.

0.05µm



36. A 44-year-old male has deteriorating hip pain secondary to osteonecrosis. Symptoms have failed to improve despite conservative measures including protected weight bearing. A subchondral lucent line can be seen on the anteroposterior radiographs of the hip.


What is the most appropriate management?



A.

Core decompression


B.

Free fibula graft


C.

Hip arthrodesis


D.

Rotational femoral osteotomy


E.

Total hip arthroplasty


Jan 14, 2021 | Posted by in ORTHOPEDIC | Comments Off on Chapter 4 – Hip II Structured SBA

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