Chapter 17 – Children’s Orthopaedics II Structured SBA




Abstract




Children’s Orthopaedics II Structured SBA Questions





Chapter 17 Children’s Orthopaedics II Structured SBA



Ling Hong Lee



Children’s Orthopaedics II Structured SBA Questions





1. A surgeon is performing in-situ fixation of a slipped upper femoral epiphysis using an unthreaded device over the physis.


Which patient characteristic will benefit the most from the chosen fixation device?



A.

A 9-year-old boy


B.

A girl with BMI of 35


C.

Acute slip presenting less than 24 hours of symptom


D.

Head–shaft angle of 40°


E.

Open greater trochanter growth plate



2. An 8-year-old girl presents with pain and swelling in her right ankle. There is no history of trauma. There is a small palpable mass anterior to the medial malleolus. On examination, the patient had a firm to hard swelling on the anteromedial aspect of ankle, bony in consistency. Radiographs are shown in Figure 17.1. CT and MRI scans show a spur-like calcified lesion originating from talus head.





Figure 17.1 (a) Anteroposteior (AP) and (b) lateral radiographs right foot


Which of the following is the most appropriate course of management for this lesion?



A.

Core needle biopsy


B.

Does not need intervention as it is known to resolve spontaneously


C.

Excision biopsy


D.

Musculoskeletal/sarcoma multidisciplinary team (MDT), talectomy and chemotherapy


E.

Referral to MDT



3. You are reviewing a 9-year-old boy with left hip Perthes disease in the OPC. AP radiographs show a stage of final healing with an aspherical congruent hip, coxa magna and short femoral neck. He has not had surgical intervention. On counselling the parents regarding further review, you describe potential deformities that may require intervention.


Which of the following is the least likely anticipated surgery?



A.

Epiphysiodesis of right knee for leg length discrepancy


B.

Femoral neck lengthening osteotomy for greater trochanter overgrowth


C.

Lateral hemiepiphysiodesis of left distal femur for genu varum


D.

Osteochondroplasty of the hip for impingement


E.

Valgus extension osteotomy of proximal femur for hinge-abduction



4. A 6-month-old boy is referred to you by a consultant paediatrician who saw the child for plagiocephaly but also noted he had a torticollis. When questioned, parents reported the presence of head tilt and rotation since birth. The child is otherwise healthy with normal milestones and has had normal delivery. There is a palpable neck mass on the side of the head tilt.


The least appropriate management at this stage would be which of the following?



A.

Physiotherapy for passive stretching of the torticollis


B.

Radiography cervical spine


C.

Referral for ophthalmic assessment


D.

Ultrasound of the hips


E.

Ultrasound of the neck



5. You are undertaking open reduction of a Weiss type III fracture of lateral condyle in a 6-year-old boy. After incision of skin and dissection of subcutaneous tissue, you find there is a rent in the fascia and deeper tissue plane directly to the fracture site.


Below are the steps you can use safely to improve exposure and visualisation to help with fracture reduction, except which of the following?



A.

Elevation of periosteum and release of anterior capsule attachment to the humerus


B.

Extension of capsulotomy distally to the radial head


C.

Extension of deep fascia proximally directly over the lateral supracondylar ridge


D.

Posterolateral dissection to release metaphyseal fragment


E.

Use a headlight



6. An 11-year-old boy complains of pain in lateral left ankle and it gives way easily. He is otherwise healthy and plays football regularly. You determine that there is flattening of medial longitudinal arch of the foot. Heel is in valgus with limited range of motion. Forefoot is in abduction.


Plain standing foot x-rays are likely to show which of the following?



A.

Dorsal dislocation of talonavicular joint not correctable with forced plantar flexion


B.

Dorsal subluxation of talonavicular joint which corrects with forced plantar flexion


C.

Loss of middle facet joint


D.

Narrowing and irregularity of calcaneonavicular joint


E.

Positive C-sign



7. A 6-month-old girl presents with deformity of unilateral posteromedial bowing of the tibia.


Which of the following statements is correct?



A.

Deformity improves the most after the child begins walking


B.

Deformity usually will require surgical intervention before school age


C.

Leg length discrepancy, if present, will worsen in length throughout growth


D.

Most common residual deformity is residual bowing


E.

On standard x-rays, the medial bow improves more than the posterior bow



8. A 9-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of right knee pain and swelling. He also complains of pain and swelling in both ankles for the past week, which have now settled. He was healthy prior to these episodes. The parents report noticing a circular red, expanding rash behind the child’s knee after returning from camping 3 months ago, which resolved spontaneously. He is able to mobilise with aid and has fever of 38°C, WCC 11 000/mm3, ESR 40mm/h, CRP 10 mg/L.


What is the mainstay in diagnosis of this condition?



A.

Blood culture and sensitivity


B.

Serum anti-nuclear antibody, HLA-B27 and ophthalmic assessment


C.

Serum enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay


D.

Serum rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody


E.

Synovial fluid polymerase chain reaction



9. A 7-year-old child was admitted the previous day with septic arthritis of the ankle. He has had open washout using an anterolateral approach. Purulent fluid was drained from ankle joint. The child still has a low-grade fever and you ascertain there is a tender swelling on the lateral ankle. Ultrasound image of lateral ankle is shown below (Figure 17.2).





Figure 17.2 U/S ankle. FE – Fibula epiphysis, FM – Fibula metaphysis, SC – subcutaneous tissue


What is the most appropriate next course of action?



A.

Arrange MRI of ankle


B.

Aspiration needle biopsy under ultrasound guidance


C.

Liaise with microbiologist to optimise antibiotics


D.

Reassurance that the ultrasound finding is normal postoperative finding and continues with existing antibiotics


E.

Return to theatre for exploration and debridement



10. A health visitor noted left hip clicking in a female baby. She was born at term, cephalic presentation and no family history of developmental hip dysplasia. She is the first child and is now 3 months old. Her left hip ultrasound is shown in Figure 17.3.





Figure 17.3 US hip


What is the next appropriate step of management?



A.

Apply Pavlik harness


B.

Arthrogram, closed reduction and application of hip spica


C.

Repeat scan in 4 weeks


D.

Open reduction and application of hip spica


E.

Reassure and follow up clinic appointment in 3 months



11. You are planning operative intervention for a 4-year-old girl with severe bilateral genu valgum. She is otherwise healthy, and the deformity is worsening.


In regard to treatment options for the deformity at this stage, which of the following techniques is not ideal?



A.

Blount staple


B.

Metaizeau percutaneous non-intersecting transphyseal screw


C.

Oblique transphyseal screw


D.

Phemister


E.

Tension-band plate



12. A 7-year-old boy with spastic diplegia GMFCS II has been referred to you by the physiotherapist who is concerned about the child’s toe walking. Sagittal plane kinematics show increased hip and knee flexion throughout stance period with normal range of motion at the ankle.


Based on the scenario here, what is the best management for the child’s gait?



A.

Botulinum toxin injection to calf


B.

Calf and hamstrings lengthening


C.

Calf intramuscular lengthening


D.

Hamstring and iliopsoas lengthening


E.

Hinged ankle–foot orthosis



13. You are examining a 9-year-old girl with hemiplegic spastic cerebral palsy. She reports frequent tripping on the affected right side. On the right side, she has positive fixed Duncan-Ely test and you notice very little knee flexion during her swing phase.


In regard to her gait on the contralateral (unaffected) side, she is likely to have which compensatory mechanism?



A.

Circumduction of leg


B.

Early heel rise in stance phase


C.

Shortened stance phase


D.

Trunk flexes forward early in stance phase


E.

Trunk leans towards the involved side



14. A child is admitted with a femur shaft fracture. You are considering using Gallows traction to manage this injury.


Which of the following is a contraindication for your choice?



A.

Fracture is transverse


B.

The child is 2 years old


C.

The child weighs 20kg


D.

There is an ipsilateral humerus fracture


E.

There is a safeguarding concern



15. Surgeon A is treating non-operatively an idiopathic congenital clubfoot of a 4-week-old infant. The foot is manipulated by abducting the forefoot against thumb pressure at the lateral side of the foot near the calcaneocuboid joint and everting the calcaneus.


What will this method will result?



A.

Correction of deformity with rate of Achilles tenotomy of 90%


B.

Correction of the forefoot and hindfoot deformity with an average of 6 serial castings


C.

Low rate of residual deformity requiring surgery


D.

Overcorrection of heel varus into flatfoot


E.

Prolonged treatment in cast and undercorrection of heel varus



16. A neonatologist has referred a newborn male infant with lower limb deformity. He has been born term and healthy. The mother is still recovering from a postpartum haemorrhage. You examined the infant on the ward and found bilateral cavo varus posture of the feet. The midfoot has curved lateral border and moderate medial and posterior creases. Attempt to correct the posture reveals prominent lateral head of talus and ankle dorsiflexion to 90°.


Which of the following is the best information for the parents in regard to the posture?



A.

Can be treated best by casting with Achilles tenotomy after the child is walking


B.

Condition is best treated by corrective surgery as soon as possible


C.

Condition is best treated by serial manipulation and casting as soon as possible


D.

Does not need intervention and will spontaneously improve


E.

Needs intervention but can wait till the child is 1 year old by corrective surgery



17. A 9-year-old boy had closed reduction and crossed K-wire fixation of a supracondylar elbow fracture. During your morning round, he is found to have decreased sensation in the ipsilateral ring and little fingers and unable to abduct his fingers.


What is true of the injured nerve?



A.

Courses between the lateral and medial head of triceps


B.

Innervates the adductor pollicis


C.

Innervates the flexor pollicis longus


D.

Is a branch of brachial plexus containing fibres from spinal roots C7, C8 and T1?


E.

Primarily flexes the proximal interphalangeal joints of ring and little fingers



18. The most likely cause of the injured nerve in Question 17 would be which of the following?



A.

Compartment syndrome


B.

Constriction by the cubital tunnel retinaculum.


C.

Medial pinning


D.

Multiple closed manipulative reduction in the ED


E.

Overshoot of lateral wires



19. An 8-year-old boy has genu varum. Blood test shows normal calcium, elevated alkaline phosphatase and parathyroid hormone and decreased phosphate and 25(OH)D.


Other findings of the boy are likely to include which of the following?



A.

Elevated IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody


B.

Inherited rickets via X-linked form


C.

Long-term use of seizure medication


D.

Mutation in COL1A2 gene


E.

Polycystic kidney disease



20. You are assessing the torsional profile of a 10-year-old girl presenting with bilateral in-toeing.


A torsional profile includes all of the following components EXCEPT which?



A.

Foot border profile


B.

Foot progression angle


C.

Hip rotation


D.

Knee intercondylar distance


E.

Thigh–foot angle



21. An 18-month-old girl was brought by her parents to a new patient clinic having had a harness programme for her bilateral developmental hip dysplasia in their home country. They have recently migrated to this country and have no documentation of previous treatment. The AP pelvis x-ray shows both the midpoints of the superior margin of the ossified metaphysis to be at the Perkin’s line and inferior to the Hilgenreiner’s line. Acetabular indices are 20° bilaterally.


The most appropriate next course of action is which of the following?



A.

Closed reduction and hip spica for persisting dysplasia


B.

List for hip arthrogram and examination under anaesthesia to check for hip laxity


C.

Open reduction and femoral osteotomy to improve congruency


D.

Open reduction and pelvic osteotomy to improve congruency and stability


E.

Reassure parents and review child routinely

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Jan 14, 2021 | Posted by in ORTHOPEDIC | Comments Off on Chapter 17 – Children’s Orthopaedics II Structured SBA

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