2.While you are performing a proximal femoral varus osteotomy (PFVO) for Perthes disease, the year 2 Core Surgical Trainee assisting you in theatre asks you to explain some of the technical issues involved with the procedure.
Concerning PFVO in Perthes disease, which of the following is correct?
For lateral pillar group C, a higher postoperative neck–shaft angle (less varus angulation) is associated with a greater probability of obtaining a Stulberg class I or II outcome
With the Ponseti technique, about 8% of idiopathic clubfeet require further surgical treatment after a percutaneous tenotomy.
Questions 5–8
A young girl presents to the ED with localised swelling, ecchymosis and tenderness over the lateral aspect of the left elbow. Her radiographs are shown in Figure 16.2. You suspect a lateral condylar fracture.
Figure 16.2 AP and lateral radiographs of left elbow
5.All the following concerning lateral humeral condylar fractures in children are true EXCEPT which?
They typically occur in children aged approximately 6 years
6.The girl’s radiographs are discussed at the morning trauma meeting. The ST3 volunteers to use the Milch classification system, but this generates a lot of confusion amongst the audience.
Concerning lateral humeral condylar fractures in children, which of the following is true?
With open reduction, all dissection should be posterior to avoid damaging the blood supply to the distal fragment and risking osteonecrosis
8.The parents of the young girl have asked to see you in recovery following surgery. They want to know if everything will be fine following fracture fixation.
Concerning complications of lateral humeral condylar fractures, all the following are true EXCEPT which?
9.A 14-year-old male returns to the fracture clinic 6 months following ORIF of both forearm bones. His fractures have healed, and his radiographs are shown in Figure 16.3. His parents ask if the plates should be removed.
Figure 16.3 Radiographs demonstrating plating both forearm bones
Regarding retention of forearm plates in children, which of the following is correct?
The use of a programmable circular external fixator has a high rate of complications
13.A 8-year-old boy presents to clinic after a co-incidental radiograph of his right proximal femur demonstrates a bone lesion (Figure 16.4). He is asymptomatic.
Figure 16.4 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph right femur
Concerning the management options of this bone lesion, which option is the most appropriate?
When performing curettage plus bone grafting, it is often necessary to use adjunctive materials, such as phenol or liquid nitrogen to prevent recurrence
14.Concerning total hip arthroplasty in patients with CP, which of the following is correct?
Physis-sparing fixation methods, such as those using transphyseal smooth wires and screws placed up to the metaphyseal femoral neck but not across the physis, are preferred
The primary indication of a Chiari osteotomy is a painful, subluxated hip without the possibility of congruent reduction in a patient older than 8 years of age
Guided growth using 8 plate tension band is best utilised for recurrent deformity
21.An 8-week-old baby girl with DDH is seen in clinic 2 weeks after starting treatment with a Pavlik harness. Parents are concerned as she hasn’t been kicking her leg out straight for the past 3 days.
Concerning transient femoral nerve palsy following treatment in a Pavlik harness, which is correct?
Smaller patients are at increased risk of femoral nerve palsy
22.In the orthopaedic paediatric clinic, you are testing the hips of a 2-week-old baby girl referred to the clinic by the paediatric doctors because they think she has clicking hips and possibly a dislocated hip.