Chapter 16 – Children’s Orthopaedics I Structured SBA




Abstract




Children’s Orthopaedics I Structured SBA Questions





Chapter 16 Children’s Orthopaedics I Structured SBA


Sattar Alshryda and Paul Banaszkiewicz



Children’s Orthopaedics I Structured SBA Questions





1. While you are templating for a proximal femoral varus osteotomy (PFVO), the student nurse asks you how the surgery works for Perthes disease.


PFVO for Perthes disease works by all the following factors EXCEPT which?



A.

Altering hip biomechanics


B.

Altering the rate of femoral head healing


C.

Forced rest and activity modification dictated by surgery


D.

Increased blood flow to the area


E.

The load-relieving effect of varus angulation



2. While you are performing a proximal femoral varus osteotomy (PFVO) for Perthes disease, the year 2 Core Surgical Trainee assisting you in theatre asks you to explain some of the technical issues involved with the procedure.


Concerning PFVO in Perthes disease, which of the following is correct?



A.

A significant correlation exists between the amount of varus angulation obtained at surgery and the Stulberg outcome at maturity


B.

A significant number of patients obtain Stulberg class I or II hips following proximal femoral varus osteotomy


C.

A varus angulation of 20–25° is recommended


D.

For lateral pillar group C, a higher postoperative neck–shaft angle (less varus angulation) is associated with a greater probability of obtaining a Stulberg class I or II outcome


E.

Surgery may lead to a significant limb length discrepancy



3. A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with severe right knee pain after falling off his bicycle. His radiograph is shown in Figure 16.1.





Figure 16.1 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph right knee


Regarding distal femoral physeal fractures in children, all the following statements are true EXCEPT which?



A.

Account for less than 1% of fractures in children


B.

Physeal arrest occurs in approximately 40% of cases


C.

Interposed periosteum is an indication for open reduction


D.

Metaphyseal screw fixation is the preferred method of treatment


E.

Account for between 6% and 9% of physeal fractures



4. A newborn with CTEV is being treated with the Ponseti technique and regularly attending the paediatric orthopaedic clinic for serial cast changes


Concerning CTEV, which of the following is correct?



A.

Adduction of the foot is required to stretch the medial soft tissues


B.

Children managed with boots and bars had an increased recurrence of deformity than did those managed with ankle–foot orthosis


C.

The Denis Browne boots and bar (DBB) is very well tolerated


D.

The Pirani score quantifies the severity of clubfoot and is a reliable prognostic of outcome


E.

With the Ponseti technique, about 8% of idiopathic clubfeet require further surgical treatment after a percutaneous tenotomy.



Questions 5–8


A young girl presents to the ED with localised swelling, ecchymosis and tenderness over the lateral aspect of the left elbow. Her radiographs are shown in Figure 16.2. You suspect a lateral condylar fracture.





Figure 16.2 AP and lateral radiographs of left elbow



5. All the following concerning lateral humeral condylar fractures in children are true EXCEPT which?



A.

The pull-off theory suggests that lateral humeral condylar fractures are avulsion fractures.


B.

The push-off theory postulates that these fractures are the result of a force directed upwards and outwards along the radius


C.

They are the most common paediatric elbow fracture


D.

They represent 12–20% of paediatric elbow fractures.


E.

They typically occur in children aged approximately 6 years



6. The girl’s radiographs are discussed at the morning trauma meeting. The ST3 volunteers to use the Milch classification system, but this generates a lot of confusion amongst the audience.


Concerning lateral humeral condylar fractures in children, which of the following is true?



A.

A Milch type I fracture is a Salter–Harris type IV fracture


B.

A Milch type II fracture is characterised by a fracture line that courses lateral to the trochlea and into the capitulotrochlear groove


C.

Lateral condylar fractures present clinically with severe deformity and neurovascular compromise


D.

Milch is of little use in determining fracture management and is largely of historical interest


E.

Milch type I fractures extend into the apex of the trochlea



7. Following the trauma meeting, she has been listed for surgery.


Concerning management of lateral humeral condylar fractures in children, which of the following is correct?



A.

A varus force on the elbow may assist in visualising the fracture fragment


B.

In general, three pins should be used for fixation to reduce the chance of pin failure and fracture re-displacement


C.

Lateral approach is generally preferred


D.

Surgical management usually consists of open reduction and smooth pin fixation


E.

With open reduction, all dissection should be posterior to avoid damaging the blood supply to the distal fragment and risking osteonecrosis



8. The parents of the young girl have asked to see you in recovery following surgery. They want to know if everything will be fine following fracture fixation.


Concerning complications of lateral humeral condylar fractures, all the following are true EXCEPT which?



A.

Cubitus valgus deformity is caused by lateral physeal arrest


B.

Cubitus valgus is a much less common complication than a cubitus varus deformity


C.

Cubitus varus deformity is most common in nondisplaced and minimally displaced fractures


D.

Non-union is most common in patients treated non-surgically


E.

Ulnar nerve palsies typically present early



9. A 14-year-old male returns to the fracture clinic 6 months following ORIF of both forearm bones. His fractures have healed, and his radiographs are shown in Figure 16.3. His parents ask if the plates should be removed.





Figure 16.3 Radiographs demonstrating plating both forearm bones


Regarding retention of forearm plates in children, which of the following is correct?



A.

Complications occur in nearly 1 in 6 patients


B.

Female gender and older age are isolated predictors of a complication


C.

Implant related fractures are less likely to occur when using a DCP


D.

The most common complications are pain or irritation from the plate


E.

The risk of implant-related fracture is higher with ulnar plating



10. All the following concerning unicameral bone cyst are true EXCEPT which?



A.

Aetiological theories include altered haemodynamics with venous obstruction causing increased interosseous pressure and cyst formation


B.

Follow-up x-rays demonstrate that the growth plate moves away from the cyst as the child grows


C.

Multiple steroid injections are usually required to achieve healing


D.

Recurrence or persistence of the cyst after surgical curettage and bone grafting occurs in approximately 30–45% of cases


E.

When fractures do occur, they generally involve the growth plate



11. The following statements concerning the Baumann procedure to correct equinus gait in children with spastic diplegic CP are all FALSE EXCEPT which?



A.

Allows for selective correction of the contracted gastrocnemius and soleus


B.

Disrupts the muscle architecture


C.

Has a high rate of over-lengthening


D.

Has a high recurrence rate


E.

Its use for correction of a mild fixed equinus deformity in children has been abandoned



12. The following concerning high energy open tibial fractures in children are all false EXCEPT which?



A.

Clear established guidelines for management exist


B.

Gustilo grade III open fractures in children have been shown to have a better outcome than adults


C.

Monolateral external fixation is currently the most commonly used method of stabilisation for these injuries


D.

Studies have shown good remodelling potential following tibial malunion


E.

The use of a programmable circular external fixator has a high rate of complications



13. A 8-year-old boy presents to clinic after a co-incidental radiograph of his right proximal femur demonstrates a bone lesion (Figure 16.4). He is asymptomatic.





Figure 16.4 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph right femur




Concerning the management options of this bone lesion, which option is the most appropriate?


A.

The lesion can be managed with observation and serial radiographs


B.

Any surgery undertaken should involve using autograft bone


C.

It is necessary to remove structural bone from the outer cyst wall


D.

Internal fixation lessens the risk of additional surgery


E.

When performing curettage plus bone grafting, it is often necessary to use adjunctive materials, such as phenol or liquid nitrogen to prevent recurrence



14. Concerning total hip arthroplasty in patients with CP, which of the following is correct?



A.

Dislocation rate is reported as 12%


B.

In general, THA should be avoided because of concerns with dislocation, infection and early prosthetic failure


C.

Heterotopic ossification occurs in 20% of hips


D.

Revision rates of 30% have been reported at 5 years


E.

Most common complication of THA is periprosthetic hip fracture



15. Regarding physeal injuries in children, which is correct?



A.

As a general rule, bones remodel better close to the knee and far from the elbow


B.

Girls are affected twice as often as boys


C.

Most authors recommend accepting any displacement in Salter–Harris type I or II injuries more than 48 hours old.


D.

Physeal fractures account for up to 70% of all paediatric fractures


E.

Salter–Harris type I accounts for 20% of all physeal injuries



Questions 16 & 17


A 10 year old boy attends the ED after falling 15 feet onto his left leg. AP pelvis radiograph is shown in Figure 16.5.





Figure 16.5 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph pelvis



16. Concerning hip fractures in children, which of the following is correct?



A.

They account for 5% of all paediatric fractures


B.

Cervicotrochanteric fractures (type III also known as basicervical fractures) are the most common fracture in children


C.

Delbet classification describes three types of fracture based on the anatomical location of the fracture line


D.

They are frequently associated with life-threatening injuries


E.

Transcervical fractures (type II) constitute the least common of the hip fractures



17. The patient is taken to theatre for fracture fixation.


Concerning the management of hip fractures in children, which is correct?



A.

Coxa vara, defined as a femoral neck–shaft angle of <120°, is the most common complication of hip fractures in children


B.

Decompression of intracapsular haematoma is a routine part of the surgical procedure after reduction and fixation have been completed


C.

Osteonecrosis is usually diagnosed radiographically within 3 months of injury


D.

Physis-sparing fixation methods, such as those using transphyseal smooth wires and screws placed up to the metaphyseal femoral neck but not across the physis, are preferred


E.

Yearly radiographic surveillance for 3 years post-surgery is recommended for displaced fractures in younger children



18. All the following concerning acetabular dysplasia in children are true EXCEPT which?



A.

For a triple osteotomy concentric hip reduction is a prerequisite


B.

Pemberton osteotomy is a complete osteotomy that hinges through the triradiate cartilage


C.

The periacetabular osteotomy allows extensive acetabular reorientation, including medial and lateral displacement


D.

The primary indication of a Chiari osteotomy is a painful, subluxated hip without the possibility of congruent reduction in a patient older than 8 years of age


E.

Triple osteotomy is generally indicated for older children and adolescents



19. All the following are true for windblown hips EXCEPT which?



A.

They are caused by symmetric activity of the adductors, abductors and internal and external rotator muscles


B.

If the hip develops more than 30% subluxation, varus shortening osteotomy is recommended


C.

It results in pelvic obliquity and pelvic rotation


D.

The child with a windblown hip may have a ‘pseudo-Galeazzi’ sign


E.

It usually affects totally involved non-ambulatory children with severe spasticity



20. Concerning Blount disease, which is correct?



A.

Lateral hemiepiphysiodesis around the knee for the treatment of adolescent Blount disease is more effective for patients with an age >14 years


B.

A distal femoral valgus deformity is almost universally present


C.

There is decreased internal tibial torsion


D.

There is increased femoral anteversion


E.

Guided growth using 8 plate tension band is best utilised for recurrent deformity



21. An 8-week-old baby girl with DDH is seen in clinic 2 weeks after starting treatment with a Pavlik harness. Parents are concerned as she hasn’t been kicking her leg out straight for the past 3 days.


Concerning transient femoral nerve palsy following treatment in a Pavlik harness, which is correct?



A.

Following development of femoral nerve palsy the harness should be abandoned


B.

Is a common complication following use of a Pavlik harness


C.

Is diagnosed late


D.

It is strongly predictive of failure of treatment


E.

Smaller patients are at increased risk of femoral nerve palsy



22. In the orthopaedic paediatric clinic, you are testing the hips of a 2-week-old baby girl referred to the clinic by the paediatric doctors because they think she has clicking hips and possibly a dislocated hip.


Concerning DDH, which is correct?



A.

Asymmetric skinfolds are a common finding with unilateral hip dislocation


B.

Hip clicks indicate significant hip pathology


C.

With each hip examination, a one-time-only Barlow and Ortolani test should be performed to minimise the risk of cartilage damage.


D.

With the Ortolani test, the examiner attempts to dislocate the hip


E.

With the Barlow test, the examiner attempts to reduce a dislocated hip

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Jan 14, 2021 | Posted by in ORTHOPEDIC | Comments Off on Chapter 16 – Children’s Orthopaedics I Structured SBA

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